Post by Dennis Tilzey on Jul 29, 2010 14:09:42 GMT -8
Last weekend we had this scenario:
Player hits ball into the dirt about two feet foul on the right field line. Ball bounces twice in foul territory but then bounces back into fair territory about twenty feet from home plate, where it bounces at least twice more and is played by the first baseman in fair territory between home and first base.
The umpire allowed the play to continue, as the ball was in FAIR territory in the infield, even though it bounced foul first. The runner was out at first (pitcher covered).
The question was whether the play should have been ruled foul. A check of the rule book seems to indicate that it was a CORRECT call, as the ball was in FAIR territory when played, prior to passing first base into the outfield. As I read the rule, ANY batted ball can bounce in foul territory then into fair territory where it may be played as a fair ball.
However, I could not find concrete concurrence. Does anyone know if this is the right call?
Player hits ball into the dirt about two feet foul on the right field line. Ball bounces twice in foul territory but then bounces back into fair territory about twenty feet from home plate, where it bounces at least twice more and is played by the first baseman in fair territory between home and first base.
The umpire allowed the play to continue, as the ball was in FAIR territory in the infield, even though it bounced foul first. The runner was out at first (pitcher covered).
The question was whether the play should have been ruled foul. A check of the rule book seems to indicate that it was a CORRECT call, as the ball was in FAIR territory when played, prior to passing first base into the outfield. As I read the rule, ANY batted ball can bounce in foul territory then into fair territory where it may be played as a fair ball.
However, I could not find concrete concurrence. Does anyone know if this is the right call?
